Analysis Of Lady Macbeth

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crown me, without my stir”. He is admitting that it isn’t necessary for him to do anything in order for his destiny to be carried out. He has a single logical moment where he believes that if he just sits back then fate will work itself out as it should. Macbeth is rethinking his murderous plot, maybe even thinking “is it entirely impossible to take into consideration that the King, in due course of time, might have appointed him as successor to the crown as a failsafe in the event of any mishap to the royal family” (Shakespearean 9). This a perfectly reasonable thought process considering that he is particularly well trusted by the King, and after Duncan dies and Malcolm and Donalbain go away Macbeth is appointed king, without having to make …show more content…

This is on account of Lady Macbeth, who is partly to blame for the happenings throughout the play as she was the mastermind behind the original crime. She acts like a merciless and manipulative horror, questioning Macbeth and making him feel diminutive and like he lied to her, asking “art thou afeard to be the same in thine own act and valour as thou art in desire?” lady Macbeth uses his doubts as to the necessity of this act against him while she teases and coerces Macbeth, and bends him unto her will (1.7.39-41). He could have been redeemed at this point if he’d just resisted his wife’s temptations and said no, but he chose the quicker option to appease his wife and satiate his own desires. While he should be held responsible for his own actions, she has a heavy influence on them even going so far as to echo her own insults back at the murderers quoting, “ay, in the catalogue ye go for men; as hounds and greyhounds, mongrels, spaniels, curs… are clept all by the name of dogs” except now he calls them dogs instead of just simply questioning their manhood (3.1.94-96, 98). If it wasn’t for her interference, Macbeth might have waited on his crown. However, it should be mentioned that she discouraged the unnecessary executions of Banquo and Fleance, and was probably not even aware of the murders of Macduff’s wife and children. The Macbeths just go to show that the …show more content…

When the severed, armed head appears, he derives you should kill Duncan from you will be king, but he can’t comprehend “beware the thane of Fife;” either Macbeth has some deficiency in logical thinking, or the guilt from his previous deeds simply doesn’t allow him to think rationally (4.1.72). “He has no real reason to kill [them], who offer no threat to his throne. The only thing they do is affect the character of Macduff” (Favila 22). Maybe Macbeth is just trying to mess with Macduff’s head, to cripple him so emotionally so that he won’t be a threat to Macbeth any longer. Maybe Macbeth interpreted the armed head to signify his own kill on the battle field earlier, and not a foretelling of his own death, but it does not explain why he heard beware Macduff and then proceeded to destroy his family. Two things can happen when a man’s loved ones are killed: he either becomes hell-bent on revenge, or he is so full of despair that he can’t even be brought to eat. Macbeth knew that Macduff fled to England, so the crime obviously isn’t a plot to kill him; just to murder all the innocent souls that have nothing to do with any conspiracy against Macbeth, but he must realize after all the culpability he feels about Duncan’s murder, and the presence of Banquo’s ghost that adding more innocent souls to his body count could not conceivably help his mental

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