Kant Vs Rousseau

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Tina Cheesman Clark Donley Political and Social Thought November 23, 2015 Rousseau, Hume, and Kant on Justice Justice is a very interesting concept. As an idea it is often very difficult to define because justice is often perceived differently by each individual to whom it is applied. Even today, there are many definitions by which it operates. Each of these different definitions has been informed to some degree by the work of either Rousseau, Hume, or Kant. Each philosopher took a vastly different stance on what constituted justice and the manner in which justice functioned in society. Rousseau believed very simply that justice was reflective of the common will. Hume believed that justice was little more than an “artificial virtue” and only …show more content…

In order to define justice, it then becomes imperative to ask: where does the common will come from? Rousseau’s argument plainly is that civil society is based on a contractual agreement of rights and duties that are applied equally to all people. In this contract, individuals exchange their natural liberties for their civil liberties, natural rights for legal ones. They enter into this contract with one specific condition in mind: that the contract and thus society will promote their good. The contract guarantees that civil laws promote the public, rather than private, good; this is because the contract is based off of the will of the people, called the “common will” by Rousseau. If individuals enter into a society based on a contract intended to promote their collective good, then justice cannot be defined as "the right of the strongest" or the power of some individuals to gain advantage over others. If justice were equivalent to the ability of one to gain an advantage over another, then the most powerful individuals (those who were in some way stronger, smarter, better) would be the most just. If justice were nothing more than the coercing of an individual to comply with a demand, individuals would have no motivation to obey their lawgiver, unless their lawgiver had the power to force compliance. If this were the case, then individuals would remove themselves from the society …show more content…

While Rousseau believes justice to be based on the will of the people, Hume believes it to be based on the public utility. Hume believed that justice was based on trust and mutual agreements which actually aim for the maximization of public utility. According to Hume, ‘public utility’ is the “sole origin of justice.” Hume asserts that “… the rules of equity or justice depend entirely on the particular state and condition, in which men are placed, and owe their origin and existence to that utility which results to the public from their strict and regular observance”. From this we can derive Hume’s opinion that justice’s purpose is the maximization of the public utility. The question then is how justice actually maximizes public utility. Here, it makes sense to explain Hume’s general ideology surrounding morals as they relate back to justice. Hume separates morals into two groups: morals stemming from reason and morals from sentiment. Hume states “No man reasons concerning another’s beauty; but frequently concerning the justice or injustice of his actions”. According to Hume, morals stem from reason if we come to understand them through logical argumentation. Therefore reason provides us knowledge, the ability to understand and make judgments, and the ability to consider the outcomes of our actions (whether they are just or unjust). Hume indicates that “Moral distinctions, it may be said, are

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