Is Hamlet Really Mad

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There is much confirmation in the play that Hamlet purposely act as if he is mad in hope to mess with the king. His determination to act "strange or odd" is by no means the only sign that shows that. To his old companion, Guildenstem, he says that "his uncle-father and aunt-mother are deceived," and that he is just "mad north-north-west." (II. ii. 360.) But that does not seem to mean much to Guildenstem. His thoughts on it only come later in the play when he says Hamlet is of "a crafty madness." (III. i. 8.)
When finalizing details with Horatio about the plan for the play, and just before the court party comes in, Hamlet says, "I should be idle." (III. ii. 85.) This apparently is a point in the play when we can clearly see his aim to be "stupid". Then with his mom during the closet scene, he brings up the accusations the court made about him being mad and …show more content…

Polonius is the first to call Hamlet man, and he supposes it is because Ophelia has rejected his pronounced love for her. He in this manner reports to the lord that "Your noble son is mad" (II. ii. 92), and then proceeds to explain to him why he think that Hamlet is indeed mad.
In spite of the fact that, he has reason to believe that Hamlet is indeed mad, the king is not fully convinced. He instructs his henchmen to "Get from him why he puts on this confusion" (II. i. 2). He knows that his son is not actually mad, he knows that he is just putting up a front but he does not know the reason behind it. He soon decides that Hamlet's actions and words don't demonstrate franticness but they demonstrate sadness.
In any case, it fills his devilish need to announce him a psycho, and he uses this as a reason to send Hamlet to England. He looks at this as a way to get rid of Hamlet. And as always the king is only interested in his own self gain not the well being of

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