Aristotle's Theory Of Household Management

1981 Words4 Pages

In his work “On the Management of the Household and the Perils of Trade”, Aristotle states that goods can be acquired in two ways: the natural form of acquisition, which obtains requisites provided by nature that are necessary for the household, and “the art of acquisition”, which he describes as the procurement of goods through retail trade (Aristotle, 126). In the natural form of acquisition, the goal is to accumulate “true wealth”, a supply of goods limited to what is useful to the household and sufficient for a content life in relation to the art of household management (Aristotle, 128). The art of household management is associated with natural acquisition and is concerned with the use of goods and not with the accretion of goods that …show more content…

Aristotle argues that retail trade, which is the buying of goods from one party and selling those goods to another party at a profit, is not natural because the objective of trade should only be to meet the “requirements of self-sufficiency” and not to make a profit, especially when at the expense of the other party involved (Aristotle, 128). He denounces the use of money in trade as unnecessary and as a means of promoting economic inequality. In this form of acquisition, man views wealth as the amount of currency he obtains, which he believes to have no limit. Regardless of currency’s perceived limitlessness, Aristotle asserts that wealth derived from money is of no worth because currency is “useless for any of the necessary purposes of life” (129). Money, according to Aristotle, is a “non-entity” that is inherently subject to change as it could become worthless if another form of currency becomes favored (Aristotle, 129). Wealth should not be able to be counted in abundance through the use of currency, as true wealth and in fact, all wealth is limited. However, Aristotle states that the seemingly limitlessness of wealth from retail trade promotes man’s belief to “keep [his] wealth in currency” as his “anxiety about livelihood” rather than well-being creates an …show more content…

Locke and Aristotle find money to be ultimately detrimental to society as it allows for man to acquire property in excess, with no limit to their wealth. However, Aristotle’s focus on the acquisition of goods only to fulfill the needs of the household greatly limits man’s ability for acquisition because it implies that man should not seek goods beyond what is sufficient for his household. Locke, on the other hand, claims that God did not intend land to “remain common and uncultivated”, but that God gave land to “the use of the industrious and rational” in order for the earth to be improved upon (91). By stating that labor is the key value in owning property, Locke promotes the limitation of wealth, but also does not constrict “the condition of human life” which he argues, “requires labor and materials to work on” (91). Although Locke believes that currency has had a negative impact on society, he recognizes that due to the introduction of the lasting value of money that allows man to buy other man’s labor, people have agreed that they can hold more land than they can work themselves. In contrast, Aristotle’s argument that “true wealth” can only be found in the goods necessary for human life, denounces labor as a means to procure greater property, as he believes man should

Open Document