Examples Of John Locke And Tacit Consent

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Chapter 1: Morality is not a science; it is an ever-changing view of what is right and wrong, good from bad throughout the course of human life. Science deals with facts, measures of values, where there are only “personal” opinions. Morality is subjective, where I don’t believe that there is such thing as moral facts. People disagree/ agree over ethical questions all the time, it is subjective matter. In a subjective matter, the speaker conveys feelings, where as in a scientific matter, the speaker would report facts (tested/proven). I feel that there are no moral facts for this exact reason, when we say something is wrong or right, we are expressing what our personal approval or disapproval may be, although their might be a common consensus, …show more content…

Whereas tacit consent is when you passive accept consent, for example, you don’t actually state your view or agreement in voice or writing to a certain situation, there is no objection. I believe that Locke’s position on tacit consent is enough to substantiate that humans have agreed to society’s rule and regulations, today as well. It was when he originally wrote his work, there were kings and queens, royals in which the people chose. The authority of the king was chosen from the “consent of the ruled”! In todays society, we have the same system, where those whom are born in this country/ fulfill certain requirements can vote for the leader of the free nation, the president. The people of the United States consented to the government, (or president in our case) and his powers when we vote for them. Locke’s position on tactic consent shows that individuals have agreed to live in a society where they are passive about the society in which they live, they still have individual rights within the sections that they live in. For us, rights and rules vary per state, but as it was the same in the 1500’s, there is still more “effective enforcement and protection” this

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