Men By Chudi-Arinze On Marital Rape

916 Words2 Pages

Karen Desuyo
Sosc 13 (7:30-9:00) PM
In “Marital Rape Amongst Men”, Chudi-Arinze explained that ‘Marital Rape’ is the act of sexual intercourse with one’s spouse without the spouse’s consent. She also added that historically, sexual intercourse within marriage was regarded as the right of spouses. However, engaging in the act without the spouse’s consent has now been widely recognized by law and society as wrong and as a crime. Futhermore, Chudi-Arinze argued against the beliefs of society that men are untouchable and that all are powerful therefore, they cannot be a victim of rape. She wants to shed light on the fact that men can also be victims of marital rape and not just women.
Marital rape laws can be highly misleading with regard to what …show more content…

Instead, case after case of men being raped were reported but not marital rape. There is actually a thin line of difference between ‘rape’ and ‘marital rape’ wherein ‘rape’ is a forced sexual intercourse with a person (male or female not restricted by spousal titles) and when it is comes to husband and wife we name it as ‘marital rape’. Though she cited examples of rape that occurred between husbands and wives like how the victim explained that he was being raped by his neighbour’s wife because of his vulnerability. The only set-back to it was that the husband (victim) was raped by the wife (perpetrator) of another husband and not really the wife of the victim. On another similar case, a sex starved wife forced her husband’s bestfriend to have sex with her. The victim then stated that the wife kept phoning and pestering him and said: “So when I went to her room, she undressed herself in front of me and forced me to have sex.” and when the husband of the wife found out about it he sued both of them. Later on, the husband’s bestfriend amitted having sexual relationship with the wife. Can this still be validated as ‘marital rape’ ? Can a man be aroused against his will ? If not, does his arousal amount to consent ? If the male victims were to claim seduction charges, how can they be proven ? It’s easier for the case of women to claim seduction …show more content…

But despite his complaint and being threatened by his wife to sleep with her friends, he made statements like: “It was embarrassing, but I have to admit secretly I loved it”, “the idea appealed to me” and “it was cool having sex with those women”. How can this example be even considered as ‘marital rape’ ? When the victim was obviously in favor of the situation. I have also come across with Chudi-Arinze’s statement saying : “Rape is a very delicate issue and no one should be blamed for rape.” I find this statement ludicrous and

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