Aristotle Vs Kant

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The philosophers Kant and Aristotle both have their own theories on the source of virtuous action. Aristotle believes that the moral worth of an action lies in the agent's intent whereas Kant believes that if one's will is determined by inclination, neither does that individual have a good will nor does the action have any moral worth. Thus, in order for an action to have moral worth, according to Kant, one's will must be determined by categorical imperatives. Once this condition is satisfied, that person can be said to have a good will and the resulting action can potentially have moral worth. Kant and Aristotle's theories on the source of virtuous actions are highly similar as they both believe that intent is a crucial component of virtuous …show more content…

Rather, when an individual consistently strikes the mean for a particular virtue, then that person can be said to have attained the particular virtue. For instance, when one is feeling anger, choosing not to respond with it demonstrates that an individual is trying to exercise self-control and if this individual continues to consistently refrain from acting upon that emotion, then eventually the individual will attain the virtue of good temper. Evidently, Kant and Aristotle differ in their theories regarding the source of virtuous action as Kant claims that a virtuous action must be done from duty and Aristotle believes that a virtuous action is done for its own sake and done in a conscious manner. Moreover, one of the key similarities between Kant and Aristotle's theories about the source of virtuous action is the importance of the agent's intent. According to Kant, ego cannot be the primary source of motivation for a virtuous act. In fact, he believes that it is merely impossible to tell whether or not an individual's act is in fact done from duty for an outsider by simply looking at the consequences of the act. This is due to the …show more content…

Kant argues that as long as there is no excess of pleasure involved in the completion of an action and it remains clear that the action is done from duty, then pleasure can be involved in the completion of a virtuous action. Similarly, Aristotle believes that pleasure can be involved in the completion of virtuous actions; however, he claims that it can be the sole motivator of an action, whereas for Kant this is simply not true. Furthermore, Kant claims that even if the action is from duty the agent's intent must be determined by the categorical imperative rather than by inclination, otherwise the individual does not have a good will and the action does not consist of any moral worth. Both Kant and Aristotle argue that the intent of an action is critical in determining whether an action is truly virtuous or not as it is not possible for an outsider to determine an individual's underlying motive for an action. It may seem that Kant and Aristotle's theories regarding the source of virtuous actions greatly differ from one another at first glance, but upon further examination it becomes evident that there are more similarities than there are differences between the theories of these two philosophers on the source of virtuous

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