Similarities Between King Louis Xvi Of France And Macbeth

1768 Words4 Pages

Dictatorship, in its diverse forms, has remained a norm in human systems of government since time immemorial. Whether manifested as the absolute monarchs of yore or the recent communist and fascist dictators of the 20th century, conventionally, dictators became oppressive and incapable of governing due to the corrupting influence of power, and most met their ends at the hands of the angry masses, such as the famous execution of King Louis XVI of France. The play Macbeth by William Shakespeare and the biography of recently deceased Libyan dictator Muammar Qaddafi both show the damaging nature of unbridled ambition and power. The former is the story of the tragic-hero Macbeth, once a celebrated soldier, who was driven to regicide to hasten …show more content…

First, the motive that drove Macbeth to depose King Duncan was his desire to see the fulfilment of the Three Witches’ prophecy about him becoming king after Duncan, since their other prophecy about becoming Thane of Cawdor had indeed come true. However, there was no need to overthrow Duncan since he was a virtuous king, as attested to by Macbeth’s own words: “Duncan / hath borne his faculties so meek […] that his virtues will plead like angels […] against / The deep damnation of his taking-off” (1.7.16-20). Confessing to himself about his foul motive, Macbeth also said, “I have no spur / To prick the sides of my intent, but only / Vaulting ambition” (1.7.25-27). As someone who had already experienced honour as a celebrated general (1.4), Macbeth’s desire for further glory was greatly strengthened by the prophecies, because of which he contemplated murdering Duncan even though there was no justifiable reason for doing so. True to his intention – and bolstered by his wife’s encouragement – Macbeth finally murdered a sleeping King Duncan and was proclaimed king, but not without unnatural occurrences that foreshadowed an evil end. Therefore, the reader notices that selfish desire for power corrupted Macbeth’s motive for becoming king from the beginning, and eventually led him to commit the horrible act of …show more content…

Firstly, the beginning of the end of Macbeth’s reign started with Malcolm, the rightful heir to the Scottish throne, mustering English support against Macbeth. However, by this time Macbeth had become completely bedazzled by his own power, encouraged by another prophecy which claimed that “none of woman born / Shall harm Macbeth” and that “Macbeth shall never vanquished be, until / Great Birnam Wood to high Dunsinane Hill / Shall come against him” (4.1.98-99, 101-103). As predicted, Macbeth was not killed until these two seemingly impossible things happened; Malcom's army used branches from Birnam Wood for camouflage and Macbeth's killer, Macduff, was born of a caesarean section. After Macbeth’s death in battle, Scotland's crown was restored to its rightful owner. In consequence, Macbeth’s short but eventful reign demonstrates that power intoxicates one to the point that their arrogance prohibits them from even defending themselves. Nevertheless, Macbeth's end could not have been anything other than what was predestined by the witches – he was a lost case from the start. However, in real life, someone who is tempted by promises of future riches and authority should not yield to the temptation if the way to that is by committing immoral acts. Unfortunately, Qaddafi

Open Document